http://nogreaterjoy.org/articles/mike-answers/ Over 500 articles from Michael and Debi Pearl on Child Training, Homeschooling, Family, Marriage, Christianity, the Bible, Missions, Simple Living, Gardening, and other topics! Fri, 18 May 2012 19:40:56 +0000 hourly 1 http://wordpress.org/?v=3.3.1 http://nogreaterjoy.org/articles/mike-answers/#comment-2196 Kenneth Knott Sat, 05 Dec 2009 23:09:09 +0000 http://new.nogreaterjoy.org/?p=4546#comment-2196 In the article "Imputed vs. Imparted Righteousness,"you state a "Christian is able to SIN NOT on a moment by moment basis, but he will always be ABLE to sin until he gets rid of this fleshly body." However, in your Romans series, you emphasize the part of scripture that explains that our body of sin has been put to death. So hasn't Christ rid a Christian of his "fleshly body" through the shared history of Christ's death, burial, and resurrection? So then, how can a Christian sin if this reality is exercised by faith? We teach that righteousness is imputed rather than imparted, but we also teach that a man can "sin not" by simply believing that he was co-crucified with Christ. We teach that a Christian may in fact sin simply by disregarding his faith as it applies to this matter, and that doing so is nothing more than an ignorant and/or selfish act of the will. However, a Christian may in fact enjoy a life free of sin by believing in the reality of his co-crucifixion with Christ. The scriptures seem to plainly teach that "sinning not" is normal for a Christian, and so we teach accordingly. Are we correct in what I have summarized here? In the article
“Imputed vs. Imparted Righteousness,”you state a “Christian is able to SIN NOT on a moment by moment basis, but he will always be ABLE to sin until he gets rid of this fleshly body.” However, in your Romans series, you emphasize the part of scripture that explains that our body of sin has been put to death. So hasn’t Christ rid a Christian of his “fleshly body” through the shared history of Christ’s death, burial, and resurrection? So then, how can a Christian sin if this reality is exercised by faith? We teach that righteousness is imputed rather than imparted, but we also teach that a man can “sin not” by simply believing that he was co-crucified with Christ. We teach that a Christian may in fact sin simply by disregarding his faith as it applies to this matter, and that doing so is nothing more than an ignorant and/or selfish act of the will. However, a Christian may in fact enjoy a life free of sin by believing in the reality of his co-crucifixion with Christ. The scriptures seem to plainly teach that “sinning not” is normal for a Christian, and so we teach accordingly. Are we correct in what I have summarized here?

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